Question Bank. Class X.S.St. Mock Test.2021-22

कृण्वन्तो विश्वमार्यम.
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under the aegis of EDRF. New Delhi.

Developed Updated at New Delhi.

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Evaluator / Observers of the page.

Dr. Telpal Singh. ( Prof.) Nainital. Department of Science

Dr. Roopkala Prasad. (Prof.) Department of English.

Dr. Bhawana.(Prof.) Department of Geography.

Dr. Manoj Kumar Sinha. Department of History.

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Class X.

S.St. Sample Questions.

Session 21 – 22..

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Set - 1

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DAV Public Schools, Bihar Zone.

Pre Board Examination 2021-22. March 2022.

CLASS X. SOCIAL SCIENCE - CODE 087

Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 40

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General Instructions :

i. This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.

ii. All questions are compulsory.

iii. Section - A : Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

iv. Section - B : Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.

v. Section -C : Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

vi. Section - D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.

vii. Section - E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts,

13.1 from History (1 mark) and

13.2 from Geography (2 marks).

viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section -A.

Very Short Answer Questions 2X5 =10

Q.1 What was the economic impact of the First World War on India? 2

Q.2 What do you mean by the term globalization? 2

Q.3 What is a political party ? What functions do political party play in India. 2

Q.4 State the importance of ( WTO ) World Trade Organization. 2

Q.5 Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow :2

Total production of finished steel in India

Year Production (in million tones)

2015- 2016 106.60

2016-2017 120.14

2017- 2018 126.85

2018-2019 101.29

2019-2020 102.62

Source: Ministry of Steel, Government of India (NCERT)

5.1 Compare the 2015-2016 and 2019-2020 data and give any one reason for the reduction of production of steel in 2019-2020. (1)

5.2 Why is production and consumption of steel considered as an index of a country’s development ? (1)

Section-B

Short Answer Type Questions 3X3 =9.

Q.6.'Credit can play a negative role.' Justify the statement with arguments. 3

Self Helf Groups are the building blocks of organization of the rural poor. Explain its benefits

Q.7. Describe the incident and impact of Jallianwala Bagh .

Q.8. A democracy is a legitimate government. Support the answer with arguments.

Section-C

Long Answer Type Questions 5x2 =10.

Q.9.What are the challenges faced by political parties.

or Suggest some reforms to strengthen political parties so that they perform their function well.

Q.10.What are the various ways in which MNCs set up ,control or produce in other countries ?

How can the Government of India play a major role to make globalization more fair ? Explain.

Section - D
Case Based Questions 4x2 =8

Q.11. Read the given text and answer the following questions : 4

" It is said of " passive resistance that it is the weapon of the weak , but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong . This power is not passive resistance ; indeed , it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active ' Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction. In the use of satyagraha , there is no ill - will whatever.

Satyagraha is pure soul - force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love Nonviolence is the supreme dharma. It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war - god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non - violence their own.
11.1. Why did Gandhiji consider nonviolence as supreme religion? (1).
11.2. How was Gandhian satyagraha taken by the people who believed in his philosophy ? (1)

11.3. Why was Gandhian Satyagraha considered as a novel way to resist injustice? (2)

Q. 12. Read the given text and answer the following questions : (4)

Pipeline transport network is a new arrival on the transportation map of India . In the past , these were used to transport water to the cities and industries . Now , these are used for transporting crude oil , petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries , fertilizer factories and large thermal power plants . Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry. The far inland locations of refineries like Barauni , Mathura , Panipat and gas based fertilizer plants could be thought of only because of pipelines .Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal . It rules out trans shipment losses or delays. There are three important networks of pipeline transportation in the country.

12.1 What was the previous use of pipelines ? (1)

12.2 How can solids be transported through a pipeline ? (1)

12.3 Mention two benefits of pipelines as a mode of transport. (2)

Section - E.

Map Skill Based Question.1x3 = 3

13. 13.1 On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A.

With the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it .

(A) The place where Non Cooperation Movement was called off due to violence. (1)

13.2 On the same given map of India , locate the following :

(i) Namrup Thermal Plant OR

Noida Software Technology Park

(ii) Raja Sansi ( Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee ) International Airport (1)

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Set - 2

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CBSE.SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2021-22. TERM II

CLASS X. SOCIAL SCIENCE - CODE 087

Time Allowed : 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 40

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General Instructions:

i. This Question paper is divided into five sections-Section A, B, C, D and E.

ii. All questions are compulsory.

iii. Section - A : Question no. 1 to 5 are very short answer type questions of 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.

iv. Section - B : Question no. 6 to 8 are short answer type questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 80 words.

v. Section -C : Question no. 9 and 10 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

vi. Section - D: Question no. 11 and 12 are Case Based questions.

vii. Section - E: Question no. 13 is map based, carrying 3 marks with two parts,

13.1 from History (1 mark) and

13.2 from Geography (2 marks).

viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.

ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

Section -A

Very Short Answer Questions 2X5 =10

Q.1 How did the Non-Cooperation Movement unfold in the cities and towns of India? 2

Q.2 Why is tourism considered as a trade? 2

Q.3 Differentiate between one party and two party system. 2

Q.4 State the role of Reserve Bank of India. 2

Q.5 Read the data in the table given below and answer the questions that follow:

Source: Ministry of Steel, Government of India (NCERT) 2

Total production of finished steel in India

Year Production (in million tonnes)

2015- 2016 106.60

2016-2017 120.14

2017- 2018 126.85

2018-2019 101.29

2019-2020 102.62

5.1 Compare the 2015-2016 and 2019-2020 data and give any one reason for the reduction of production of steel in 2019-2020. (1)

5.2 Why is production and consumption of steel considered as an index of a country’s development ? (1)

Section-B

Short Answer Type Questions 3X3 =9.

Q.6. Why do most of the rural households still remain dependent on the informal sources of credit ? (3) Explain. OR

How do Self Help Groups help borrowers to overcome the problem of lack of collateral? Explain. (3)

Q.7.“Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of swaraj in another way and participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement differently.” Justify the statement. (3)

Q.8. Examine the role of Political Parties in a democratic country. (3)

Section-C

Long Answer Type Questions 5x2 =10.

Q.9.Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.’ Support the statement with examples. OR

‘There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy in South Asia.’ Support the statement with examples. 5

Q.10. Examine the role of Information Technology in stimulating the process of globalization. OR Assess the impact of globalization on India and its people. (5)

Section-D

Case Based Questions 4x2 =8.

Q.11.Read the given text and answer the following questions : (4)

‘It is said of “passive resistance” that it is the weapon of the weak, but the power which is the subject of this article can be used only by the strong. This power is not passive resistance; indeed, it calls for intense activity. The movement in South Africa was not passive but active … ‘Satyagraha is not physical force. A satyagrahi does not inflict pain on the adversary; he does not seek his destruction … In the use of satyagraha, there is no ill-will whatever. ‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force. Truth is the very substance of the soul. That is why this force is called satyagraha. The soul is informed with knowledge. In it burns the flame of love. … Nonviolence is the supreme dharma …‘It is certain that India cannot rival Britain or Europe in force of arms. The British worship the war-god and they can all of them become, as they are becoming, bearers of arms. The hundreds of millions in India can never carry arms. They have made the religion of non-violence their own ...’ 4

11.1. Why did Gandhiji consider nonviolence as supreme dharma? (1)

11.2 How was Gandhian satyagraha taken by the people who believed in his philosophy? (1)

11.3 Why was Gandhian satyagraha considered as a novel way to resist injustice? (2)

Q.12. Read the given text and answer the following questions :

Ever since humans appeared on the earth, they have used different means of communication. But, the pace of change, has been rapid in modern times. Long distance communication is far easier without physical movement of the communicator or receiver. Personal communication and mass communication including television, radio, press, films, etc. are the major means of communication in the country. The Indian postal network is the largest in the world. It handles parcels as well as personal written communications. Cards and envelopes are considered first-class mail and are airlifted between stations covering both land and air. The second-class mail includes book packets, registered newspapers and periodicals. They are carried by surface mail, covering land and water transport. To facilitate quick delivery of mails in large towns and cities, six mail channels have been introduced recently. They are called Rajdhani Channel, Metro Channel, Green Channel, Business Channel, Bulk Mail Channel and Periodical Channel. 4

12.1 Examine the role of the Indian postal network. (1)

12.2 Differentiate between mass communication and personal communication. (1)

12.3 Analyse the significance of communication for a nation. (2)

Section-E

Map Skill Based Question 1x3 =3

13. 13.1 On the given outline Political Map of India, identify the place marked as A with the help of following information and write its correct name on the line marked near it.

(A) The place where Non Cooperation Movement was called off due to violence. (1)

13.2 On the same given map of India, locate the following:

(I) Namrup Thermal Plant (1) OR (1)

Noida Software Technology Park

(II) Raja Sansi (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee) International Airport (1)

Note: The following question is for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No.13.1

13.1 Name the State where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1927. (1)

Note: The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No.13.2.

Attempt ANY TWO questions.

13.2 Name the State where Namrup Thermal Plant is located. (1)

13.3 Name the State where Noida Software Technology Park is located. (1)

13.4 Name the city where Raja Sansi (Sri Guru Ram Dass Jee) International Airport is located. (1)

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Set - 3.

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Sample Question Paper 2021- 22.

Term I. Class X. Set. A.

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Social Science - Code 087.

Time : 120 Minutes

MM 40
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General Instruction.
1.The Question Paper contains four sections.
2. Section A. has 20 Questions. Attempt any 20 Questions
3. Section B has 10 Questions. Attempt any 10 Questions.
4. Section C has 8 Questions ( Case Based). Attempt any 8 Questions.
5. Section D contains 2 Map Based Questions. Attempt both the Questions.
6.All questions carry equal marks.
7.There is no negative marking.

Section A. has 20 Questions. Attempt any 20 Questions.
Multiple choice questions:
Q.1. Fredric Sorreiu belonged to which country ?
a.  France
b. Germany
c. Italy
d. Greece
Q.2. Where the Treaty of Viena was hosted?
a. Viena
b. Rome
c. Paris
d. England.
Q.3.When was the Unification of Italy completed?
a. 1861.
b. 1862.
c. 1863.
d. 1864.
Q.4.In which year the unification of Germany completed.?
a. 1869
b. 1870
c. 1871.
d. 1872.
Q.5 Who said when France sneezes the entire Europe catches cold.
a. Fredric Sorreieu
b. Meternich
c. Lenin
d. Bismark.
Q.6.Language plays an important role in the unification of which country.
a. France
b. Russia
c. Britain
d. Germany.
Q.7. Which of the following countries does not share its border with Belgium?
A. Netherland
B. France
C. India
D. Germany
Q.8.Shweta is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment for Central Government positions .In how many languages as mentioned in the eighth schedule can she opt to take the exam. Select the appropriate option.
A. 18
B. 21
C. 22
D. 25
Q.9. Identify the correct statements about the theory of federalism in the Indian Constitution.
A. The constitution declared India is a Union of States.
B. Sharing of power between the union government and the state government is basic  to the structure of the constitution.
C. It is easy to make changes to it’s power sharing arrangement.
D. The Parliament on its own changes this arrangement.
Options
A.      I & II
B.      II & III
C.      I &III
D.       II & IV
Q.10.Which of the following of options prove that India is a Quasi Federal state?
I More powers with centre
II Residuary subjects with Centre.
III. Equal subjects with centre and state
IV. Currency and Railways which Centre.
Options:
A.      I, III & IV
B.      I, II & IV
C.      II, III & IV
D.      I &II
Q.11.The system of Panchayati Raj involves :
A.      The village, the block and the district
B.      The village and the state
C.      The village, the district and the state
D.      The village, the state and the union government
Q.12. Why is power sharing among different organs of the government is called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.
A.  It gives Judiciary more power than legislature and executive.
B. It allows different organs of the government to be placed at the same level.
C.   It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.
D.   It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.
Q.13.When was States Reorganisation Commission formed?
A. In 1951
B. In 1963
C. In 1997
D. In 1953
Q.14.In which of the following states is black soil found?
a. Bihar
b. Gujrat
c. Rajasthan
d. Jharkhand
Q.15.Which of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
a. Intensive cultivation
b. Deforestation
c. Over irrigation
d. Overgrazing
Q.16. In which of the following states is terrace cultivation practiced?
a. Punjab
b. Plains of Uttar Pradesh
c. Haryana
d. Uttarakhand
Q.17.Under which of the following types of resources can tidal energy be put ?
a. Replenish able
b. Human-made
c. Abiotic
d. non - recyclable
Q.18. Which one if the following is a rabi crop?
a. Rice
b. Gram
c. Millets
d. Cotton
Q.19. Development of a country country can generally be determined by
a. Its per capita income
b. its average literacy level
c. health status of its people
d. all of the above
Q.20.Why national income we mean the money value of
a. All goods produced during a year
b. all final goods produced during a year
c. all services produced during the year
d. all final goods and services produced during a year

Section B has 18 Questions. Attempt any 18 Questions.

Q.21. Whose figure is this ?

a. Marine
b. Germinia.
c. Bharatmata
d. Statue of liberty.

Q.22.Which two nations were shown in this picture.

a. America
b. Swiss.
c. America and Swiss
d. Germany.
Q.23.Which of the following options are correct
a. The Balkan Region became very sensitive.
b. The Balkan region became the part of conflict because of Ottoman Empire.
c. The European powers struggled to establish the power over the Balkan Region.
Options :
a. I & II
b. I,II,III
c. Only I
d. Only II
Q.24.Homany times was the constitution of Belgium amended between 1970 and 1993?
A. Three times
B. Two times
C. Four times
D. Once
Q.25.Find the incorrect option :
A. The Belgian leaders took a different path.
B. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversity.
C. Between 1960 and 1983 they amended their constitution three times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.
D. The arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative
Q.26. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option
Assertion (A) : In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements where by socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.
Reason (R) This system is called 'Reserved constituencies 'in assemblies and the parliament of our country.
Options :
a. Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A.
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false.
d. A is false but R is true.
Q.27.Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?
a.  Pulses
b.  Jowar
c.   Milkets
d. Sesamum
Q.28. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?
a.  Maximum support Price
b.  Minimum support Price
c.  Moderate support price
d. Influential support price
Q.29. Assertion (A) : different people have different development goals
Reason (R) : people want freedom equality security and respect
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false and R is true
Q.30. Assertion (A) : groundwater is an example of renewable resources
Reason (R) : if we use more than what is being replaced by rain then we would be overusing this resource
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false and R is true

Section C has 8 Questions ( Case Based). Attempt any 8 Questions.

a. (case based questions)

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:
Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. it is also an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British.Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by Indians.The tea plant grows well in tropical and subtropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil,rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves.Tea is a labour- intensive industry.It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour.Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and jalpaiguri districts , West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala.Apart from these, Himachal pardesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea -producing states in the country.In 2015 India was the second largest producer of tea after China.
Q.31 : Who introduced tea cultivation in India?
(a) German
(b) British
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Q.32 : Which of the following states is the largest producer of tea?
(a) Assam
(b) West Bengal
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) Kerala
Q.33 :Tea bushes require------- and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
(a) cold
(b) warm
(c) moderate
(d) None of these.
Q.34 : Which of the following countries was the largest producer of tea in 2015?
(a) India
(b) China
(c) USA
(d) Sri Lanka

(b) CASE - BASED QUESTIONS
The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans. The Balkans was a region of geographical and ethnic variation comprising modern - day Romania , Bulgaria , Albania , Greece , Macedonia , Croatia , Bosnia - Herzegovina , Slovenia , Serbia and Montenegro whose inhabitants were broadly known as the Slavs . A large part of the Balkan was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire made this region v explosive. All through the nineteenth century the Ottoman Empire had sought to strengthen itself through modernization and internal reforms but with very little success. One by one European subject nationalities broke away from its control and declared independence.
Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign powers.
Hence the rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long - lost independence.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option.
Q.35.The Ottoman Empire sought to strengthen itself through :
(a) Modernization
(b) internal reforms
(c) both ( a ) and ( b )
(d) None of the above
Q.36.The Balkan peoples based their claims for
(a) independence, political rights
(b) power sharing ,federalism
(c) secularism, political rights
(d) modernisation ,Strength History
Q.37.The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1571 was the area of
(a) Ottoman Empire
(b) Balkans
(c) Greece
(d) Albania
Q.38.The spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism was responsible for
(a) disintegration of Greece
(b) Balkans disintegration from the Ottoman Empire
(c) integration of Macedonia
(d) none of the above

Section D. contains 2 Map Based Questions. Attempt both the Questions

Q.39:On the given map of India Locate & label the following.
On the given map of India A is marked as a multipurpose dam identify it from flowing the options.

a. Koshi Baraj
b. Tilaya Dam
c. Bhakhara Nagal Dam
d. Tehri Dam
Q.40. On the given map of India B is marked as a tea producing state identify it from flowing the options.
a. West Bengal
b. Tripura.
c. Aasam
d. Arunachal Pradesh

Question Bank Terminal 1. X. Mock Test 2021-22.

Sample Question Paper 2021- 22.
Term I
Class X.Set B.
Social Science - Code 087.
Time 90 Minutes MM 40

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General Instruction.
1.The Question Paper contains four sections.

2. Section A. has 24 Questions. Attempt any 20 Questions

3. Section B has 22 Questions. Attempt any 18 Questions.

4. Section C has 12 Questions ( Case Based). Attempt any 10 Questions.

5. Section D contains 2 Map Based Questions. Attempt both the Questions.

6.All questions carry equal marks.

7.There is no negative marking.

Class - X. Mock Test.1st Term. History. Madhup.Set B. F. M. -15

Section A. has 24 Questions. Attempt any 20 Questions.

Multiple choice questions: 1x6 =6 Marks

Q.1.Frederic Sorrieu was an artist of

a. French

b. British

c. German

d. Portuguese

Q.2.Which was the existing Nation State that time?

a. British

b. French

c. German

d. USA

Q.3.Which Revolution gave the idea of la patrie ( the Father Land )?

a. The Glorious Revolution

b. The French Revolution

c. The Russian Revolution.

d. The Sepoy Revolt.

Q.4.Who introduced the Civil Code of 1804?

a. Louis XVI

b. Napolean

c. William 1^st

d. Frederic Sorrieu

Q.5.When was the Vienna Peace called upon?

a.1812.

b.1813.

c.1815.

d.1816.

Q.6.Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union 1707.
a. Unification of Germany

b. Unification of the Kingdom of Great Britain

c. Unification of Italy

d. Unification of Vietnam.

Q.7.Who was proclaimed the king of Italy in 1861.

a. Gariwaldi

b. Cavour

c. Mazzini

d. Victor Emmanuel II

Q.8.Unification of Italy completed in

a. 1858

b.1859

c.1860

d.1861.

Section B has 22 Questions. Attempt any 18 Questions.

Q.9.Which nation of Allegory Germinia this is ?

a. France

b. Germany

c. Britain

d. Italy.

Q.10.Whose painting is this?

a. Fredric Sorreiue.

b. Ernest Renon

c. Lenin

d. Marx.

Q.11.Which type of conservative regimes set up in 1815 in Europe?

a. Autocratic

b. Aristocratic

c. Democratic

d. Dictatorial.

Q.12.Where hoisted the the Treaty of Viena.?

a. Frederic Sorrieu

b. Victor Emmanueal

c. Duke Matternich

d. Giuseppe Gariwaldi.

Q.13.Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).Read the statements and choose the appropriate option

Assertation : Austria attacked Servia and First World War started.

Reason : As Japan Supported Sarvia.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true.

Q.14.Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).Read the statements and choose the appropriate option

Assertation : When France sneezes entire world catches cold.

Reason : As since 1789 July Revolution Liberty, Equality and Fraternity were the inspirational words effected the entire world.

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true.

Q.15.Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R).Read the statements and choose the appropriate option

Assertation : Rome became the capital of united Italy.

Reason : As its unification was completed in 1861

a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

b. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false

d. A is false but R is true.

Class - X. Mock Test.1st Term. Set A. Geography. Uttam Mishra. F. M. -15

Section A

Q.1.In which of the following states is black soil found ?

a. Bihar

b. Gujrat

c. Rajasthan

d. Jharkhand

Q.2.Which of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?

a. Intensive cultivation

b. Deforestation

c. Over irrigation

d. Overgrazing

Q.3.In which of the following states is terrace cultivation practiced?

a. Punjab

b. Plains of Uttar Pradesh

c. Haryana

d. Uttarakhand

Q.4.Under which of the following types of resources can tidal energy be put ?

a. Replenishable

b. Human-made

c. Abiotic

d. non-recyclabe

Q.5.Which one if the following is a rabi crop?

a. Rice

b. Gram

c. Millets

d. Cotton

Section - B

Q.6.Which one of the following is a leguminous crop?

a. Pulses

b. Jowar

c. Milkets

d. Sesamum

Q.7.Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop?

a. Maximum support Price

b. Minimum support Price

c. Moderate support price

d. Influential support price

Section - C

Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option :

In a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but our deficient in some other resources.There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balance resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels.

India has enormous diversity in the availability of ___________________.

a. Resources

b. Population

c. Money

d. None of these

Which states are rich in minerals and coal deposits?

a. Jharkhand

b. Arunachal Pradesh

c. Bihar

d. Rajasthan

Which state has abundance of water?

a. Rajasthan

b. Arunachal Pradesh

c. Arunachal Pradesh

d. Gujrat

Which state is very well endowed with solar energy?

a. Sikkim

b. Himachal Pradesh

c. Rahasthan

d. Uttarakhand

Ladakh is a place of ________________.

a. Hot desert

b. Cold desert

c. Both

d. None

Which place has a very rich cultural heritage?

a. Ladakh

b. Puducherry

c. Andaman & Nicobar

d. Lakshadweep

Section - D

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information.On the political map of India, ‘A' is marked as a dam. Identify it from the following options:

a. Hirakud

b. Tilaiya

c. Sardar Sarovar

d. Kitna.

On the political map of India, ‘B' is also marked as a dam, identify it from the following options:

a. Rana Pratap Sagar

b. Maithan

c. Bhakra Nangal

d. Periyar

Class - X. Mock Test.1st Term. Geography. Santosh. Set B. F.M. - 15.

Section - C (Case based Geography Questions).

Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follows:

Tea cultivation is an example of plantation agriculture. it is also an important beverage crop introduced in India initially by the British. Today, most of the tea plantations are owned by Indians.The tea plant grows well in tropical and subtropical climates endowed with deep and fertile well-drained soil,rich in humus and organic matter. Tea bushes require warm and moist frost- free climate all through the year. Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year ensure continuous growth of tender leaves. Tea is a labour- intensive industry.It requires abundant, cheap and skilled labour.Tea is processed within the tea garden to restore its freshness. Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts , West Bengal,Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pardesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea -producing states in the country.In 2015 India was the second largest producer of tea after China.

Q.1: Who introduced tea cultivation in India?
(a) German

(b) British

(d) Dutch
Q.2: Which of the following states is the largest producer of tea?
(a) Assam

(b) West Bengal

(d) Kerala
Q.3 :Tea bushes require------- and moist frost-free climate all through the year.
(a) cold

(b) warm

(d)None of these.
Q.4 : Which of the following countries was the largest producer of tea in 2015?
(a) India

(b) China

(d) Sri Lanka
Q.5 : Darjeeling and jalpaiguri are located in?
(a) Kerala

(b) Tamil Nadu

(d) Uttarakhand.
Q.6 : Which of the following state doesn't produce tea?
(a) Bihar

(b) Assam

(d) Bihar.
Section-D
Q.6 :On the given map of India Locate & label the following.

(A) Mountain soil.

(B) Black soil.

Class - X. Mock Test.1st Term. S.St. Economics Danish.Set B. F.M. - 15.

1. Development of a country country can generally be determined by

a. Its per capita income

b. its average literacy level

c. health status of its people

d. all of the above

2. Why national income we mean the money value of

a. All goods produced during a year

b. all final goods produced during a year

c. all services produced during the year

d. all final goods and services produced during a year

3. Kerala has low infant mortality rate because

a. People of this state are very rich

b. the climate of Kerala is very congenial and cosy

c. state and adequate provisions of basic health and educational facilities

d. people take nutrition diet and are not addicted to drugs

4. Assertion (A) : different people have different development go…

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false and R is true

6.Which of the following profession belongs to the tertiary sector of economy

A. Fisherman

B. farmer

C. factory worker

D. teacher

7. Production of a commodity, mostly through the natural process is an activity in .............sector

A. Primary

B. Secondary

C. Tertiary

D. Information technology

8. GDP is the total value of .................produced during a particular year.

A. All goods and services

B. all final goods and services

C. all intermediate goods and services

D. all intermediate and final goods and services

9. In terms of GDP the share of tertiary sector in 2013-14 is

A. Between 20 to 30%

B.between 30 to 40%

C.between 50 to 60%

D. between 60 to 70%

10. Economic survey was published by the

A. National Sample Survey organisation

B. Ministry of statistics and planning

C. Ministry of Finance

D. Ministry of Commerce and trade

11. The sector which has emerged as the largest producing sector in India is

A. Primary sector B. Secondary sector C. tertiary sector D. none of the above

12. In our country NREGA 2005 aims to provide to all those who are able to and are willing to work in minimum of

A. 200 days of employment in a year

B. 100 days of employment in a year

C. 300 days of employment in a year

D. 365 days of employment in a year

13. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of

A. Employment conditions

B. the nature of economic activity

C. ownership of Enterprises

D. number of workers employed in the Enterprise

14. Assertion(A) : the development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of service sector

Reason (R) : as the primary and secondary sector develops the demand of transport, storage structures, banks ,insurance, etc increases.

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false and R is true

15. Assertion(A) : Reliance Industries is a privately owned firm

Reason (R) : government is a major stakeholder is Reliance Industries

A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

B. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false and R is true

Mock Test, Question Paper, 2021. Class- X. Sub : Civics. Geeta . FM : 10

Section A

Q.1.Which of the following countries does not share its border with Belgium?

a. Netherland

b. France

c. India

d. Germany

Q.2.Shweta is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment for Central Government positions .In how many languages as mentioned in the eighth schedule can she opt to take the exam. Select the appropriate option.

a. 18

b. 21

c. 22

d. 25

Q.3. Identify the correct statements about the theory of federalism in the Indian Constitution.

a. The constitution declared India is a Union of States.

b. Sharing of power between the union government and the state government is basic

to the structure of the constitution.

c. It is easy to make changes to it’s power sharing arrangement.

d. The Parliament on its own changes this arrangement.

Options :

a. I & II

b. II & III

c. I &III

d. II & IV

Q.4.Which of the following of options prove that India is a Quasi Federal state?

I More powers with centre.

II Residuary subjects with Centre.

III. Equal subjects with centre and state

IV. Currency and Railways which Centre.

Options:

a. I, III & IV

b. I, II & IV

c. II, III & IV

d. I &II

Q.5.The system of Panchayati Raj involves :

a. The village ,the block and the district

b. The village and the state

c. The village, the district and the state

d. The village, the state and the union government

Q.6.Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India which of the following holds truth in the case of India?

a. The policy of accommodation has strengthened National Unity.

b. Language based States have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language.

c. The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other languages.

d. None of the above.

Q.7.Why is power sharing among different organs of the government is called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.

a. It gives Judiciary more power than legislature and executive.

b. It allows different organs of the government to be placed at the same level.

c. It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.

d. It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.

Q.8.When was States Reorganisation Commission formed?

a. In 1951

b. In 1963

c. In 1997

d. In 1953

Section B

Q.9.How many times was the constitution of Belgium amended between 1970 and 1993?a. Three times

b. Two times

c. Four times

d. Once

Q.10.Find the incorrect option :

a. The Belgian leaders took a different path.

b. They recognised the existence of regional differences and cultural diversity.

c. Between 1960 and 1983 they amended their constitution three times so as to work out an arrangement that would enable everyone to live together within the same country.

d. The arrangement they worked out is different from any other country and is very innovative.

Q.11. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion(A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option

Assertion(A) : In some countries there are constitutional and legal arrangements where by socially weaker sections and women are represented in the legislatures and administration.

Reason (R) This system is called 'Reserved constituencies 'in assemblies and the parliament of our country.

Options :

a. Both A and R are true but R is the correct explanation of A.

b. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

c. A is true but R is false.

d. A is false but R is true.

Q.12.Which country leaders realized that the unity of the country is possible only by respecting the interest of different communities?

a. Belgium

b. Sri Lanka

c. Both of the above

d. None of the above

Q.13.A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants ,by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:

a. Power Sharing

b. Central government

c. Majoritarianism

d. State Government.

Q.14.In Srilanka which governments has all the powers?

a. Local government

b. State government

c. Rural government

d. Central government

Q.15. In a coalition government, power sharing takes place among different :

a. Religious groups

b. Levels of government

c. Political parties

d. Organs of government

Q.16. Which of the following states has become union territory of India?

a. Uttarakhand

b. Telangana

c. Jammu and Kashmir

d. Nagaland

M.S. Media.

Question Bank. Class X.S.St. Mock Test.2021-22

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